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Is a triple divorce effected if a man utters words that convey that meaning, without the intention of divorce at the moment of utterance, but he had previously intended that these words would be considered a divorce?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Divorce does not occur with the present tense verbal form unless the husband intends to effect it thereby, because it is one of the ambiguous expressions (kinayat) of divorce. What the husband said to himself does not have an effect. If the husband is afflicted with obsessive whispers (waswas), his divorce does not occur even if he utters an explicit declaration of divorce, and he must avoid these whispers.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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