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What is the meaning of the man paying blood money if he has sexual intercourse with his wife and she is over 18 years old, and if she is younger, he is judged? And does he pay blood money while she is lawful for him?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Sayyid Sabiq, may Allah have mercy on him, titled a section in "Blood Money and Guarantees" as "A Man Rending His Wife," meaning the removal of the barrier between the vagina and the anus, i.e., tearing the urinary and seminal tract, or the area between the front and back passages. If a man has intercourse with his wife and rends her, and she is an adult woman who can tolerate such intercourse, then there is no guarantee (compensation) upon him. However, if she is a minor who cannot tolerate such intercourse, then blood money is due from him. The phrase "cannot tolerate such intercourse" means that she is unable to bear intercourse due to her young age or extreme thinness, not a specific age. If intercourse leads to the rending of a wife who cannot tolerate it, then this is a transgression that obligates the husband to pay compensation. Scholars differ on the amount of this compensation if the wife does not die.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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