Does the divorce of a wife authorized to divorce herself take effect if she intended a previous divorce, not a new one, and does the divorce of a menstruating woman take effect when the husband is angry?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The question is unclear, but agency in divorce is permissible, and a man may authorize his wife to divorce herself. If the statement "I divorced myself" is intended to recount a previous divorce and not to initiate a new one, then the divorce does not take effect religiously (between you and Allah). However, if there is no corroborating evidence, the divorce is considered to have taken effect both outwardly and inwardly.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/161916
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 161916
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy