Does the divorce of a wife authorized to divorce herself take effect if she intended a previous divorce, not a new one, and does the divorce of a menstruating woman take effect when the husband is angry?

The question is unclear, but agency in divorce is permissible, and a man may authorize his wife to divorce herself. If the statement "I divorced myself" is intended to recount a previous divorce and not to initiate a new one, then the divorce does not take effect religiously (between you and Allah). However, if there is no corroborating evidence, the divorce is considered to have taken effect both outwardly and inwardly.