Is a man permitted to take his wife back after he divorced her by saying, "I didn't tell you that if you did such and such, you would be unlawful to me! You are divorced, divorced, divorced," all at once without interruption, knowing that this was the first divorce and that he had never said to her before, "If you do such and such, you will be unlawful to me," except at the time of the divorce?

Firstly: When a husband says, "You are divorced, divorced, divorced," it counts as one divorce, whether he intended emphasis or a new pronouncement, unless there was a return (during the iddah) or a new marriage contract in between.

Secondly: If the husband pronounces divorce based on his belief that he previously said, "If you do such-and-such, you are forbidden to me," and then it becomes clear to him that he did not say that, then the divorce does not occur, because it was based on something not proven. The decisive factor is the husband's statement; if he insists that he said it, the divorce occurs. If he remembers that he did not say it, it does not occur.

Thirdly: If the husband insists that he said the phrase "you are forbidden to me" and intended divorce thereby, it is as if he pronounced divorce four times, but only one divorce occurs. If he intended ẓihār (a type of injurious pronouncement), then expiation for ẓihār is required along with a subsequent divorce (by his saying, "you are divorced"). If he intended nothing or only intended prevention, then expiation for an oath is required along with a divorce.