Does a divorce take place and a wife become divorced if she requests a divorce after her husband stipulated that divorce would occur if she repeated the request?

It is not permissible for a woman to seek divorce without harm or a valid excuse, and whoever does so will be deprived of the scent of Paradise. As for the husband's statement, "then the oath of divorce will fall," it is considered a promise of divorce that has no consequence unless the divorce actually occurs, unless he intended thereby to suspend the divorce upon her return to what he forbade her from. If the wife repeatedly requests divorce, the divorce occurs according to the majority of scholars, whereas it does not occur according to Ibn Taymiyyah if the intention was threat or intimidation.