Should the one obligated to pay zakat on his wealth do so despite the large debts owed to the heirs, knowing that he owns a shop for selling foodstuffs and herbs?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The majority of scholars hold that debt prevents the obligation of on internal assets (gold, silver, cash, and trade goods). So, if a person possesses wealth sufficient to repay their debt and a zakatable threshold () remains thereafter, zakat becomes obligatory on the remaining nisab after settling the debt and upon the completion of a full year (hawl). However, if no nisab remains after settling the debt, then no zakat is due.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/62545
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 62545
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy