Does a divorce that occurred twice, once via text message and once verbally in the car, take effect, knowing that the husband was angry on both occasions?

"The ruling on writing an explicit divorce message via mobile phone is a matter of scholarly disagreement: is it equivalent to an explicit verbal utterance, or is it a metaphorical expression (kinayah) that requires intention? If you intended divorce with the first message, then one divorce has occurred; otherwise, there is disagreement regarding its occurrence. As for the second divorce, it is effective because it is in explicit terms, unless you uttered it while unaware of what you were saying due to extreme anger; in that case, your divorce would not be valid. It is recommended to present these matters to trustworthy scholars in person."