Does a divorce sent by a husband to his wife via phone message, stating "You are divorced, divorced, divorced," count as a divorce, given that he had no intention of divorcing her, but rather intended to threaten, frighten, and deter her from her disobedience and rebellion, relying on the premise that written divorce does not count as a divorce without intent, and citing the views of jurists such as Ibn Qudamah in "Al-Mughni" and the author of "Matalib Uli Al-Nuha"?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The ruling on divorce by writing in mobile messages is disputed: is it like uttering it verbally, or is it a kinaya (allusive expression) that takes effect with intention? As long as you have adopted the view of those who consider writing a kinaya, by which divorce does not occur without the intention of causing it, then divorce does not occur by what you wrote in the message with the aim of frightening your wife.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/136274
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- Original fatwa ID
- 136274
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- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy