Does a divorce occur if a man says to his wife: "By divorce, I don't have money," meaning the money in his pocket, knowing that he has money in the bank, and he was angry at the time?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The intention of the one swearing an oath is considered in the oath. So, if you swore, intending that you did not have enough in your pocket to buy the desired item, and you did not break your oath, then your divorce (oath) does not take effect. It is necessary to point out that the lawful oath is to swear by Allah the Almighty, and swearing by divorce is among the oaths of the wicked, and one should beware of it.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/194964
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 194964
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy