What is the ruling on a man boycotting the food of his mother who deals in usury and does not pay zakat? And is the marriage valid if the husband did not pray before the marriage or only prayed Fajr?
As for a man not eating from his mother's money, there is a detailed explanation. If all her earnings are unlawful, or if she bought food with the exact unlawful money, then it is not permissible for him to eat. However, if her money is mixed, then it is disliked for him to eat from it, and the degree of dislike varies according to the abundance or scarcity of the unlawful portion.
As for , it is an obligation upon her, and he must advise her and warn her of God's wrath.
As for one who abandons prayer, there is a strong difference of opinion among scholars regarding ruling him as a disbeliever. If he is not ruled as a disbeliever, then his marriage is valid, unless he denies the obligation of prayer.
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