Does the divorce of a person suffering from constant whispers (waswas) concerning the prohibition of his wife, and who is made to believe that every word he utters constitutes a divorce, actually take effect? And does his failure to resist these whispers affect the consideration of intention? And is his statement, "Divorce her so that you may be relieved from doubts and the waswas of divorce," considered evidence of his intention to divorce, bearing in mind that he was under the duress of illness and distress?
The person afflicted with overwhelming obsessive thoughts to the point of losing his mind or control over it, his divorce does not take effect, and his wife remains under his marital bond. He should not pay attention to the thoughts that delude him into believing his wife is forbidden to him, and he must strive to treat himself.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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