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The question

If a man grants his wife the right to divorce herself, and she exercises it, is the divorce irrevocable, like khulʿ? And if the wife wishes to return, is that permissible for her? Does empowering the wife with the right to divorce mean she possesses all its effects? And what if she divorces herself by virtue of the right granted to her, and during the revocable waiting period (ʿiddah), her husband has intercourse with her against her will—is this considered a return?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a husband delegates the right of divorce to his wife, and she issues a single divorce, it is considered a revocable divorce (ṭalāq rajʿī). This is what Al-Shafi'i stipulated, and Ahmad narrated it from the Companions. The wife does not have the right to reconcile with the husband, because the delegation pertained only to divorce. If the husband has intercourse with her during the waiting period (ʿidda) intending reconciliation, she returns to him, even if she is unwilling.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
80048
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy