Does a verbal divorce of the first wife take effect if it was done with the intention of pleasing the second wife and not with the intention of divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The statement "So-and-so is divorced, divorced, divorced" is an explicit declaration of divorce, and it effectuates a single divorce unless the husband intended more. It is not the right of the second wife to demand the divorce of the first wife.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/183065
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 183065
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy