Is purchasing a home from a bank that owns the home and sells it through a fictitious interest-bearing loan considered usury, or does the bank have the right to choose the method of sale?
This transaction contains two prohibitions: The first is lending to the bank with interest, and the second is the bank's condition that one must purchase from their housing projects to obtain the loan. Thus, it has become a loan with interest that generates a stipulated benefit, and this is religiously forbidden because it is explicit usury (riba). Therefore, engaging in this transaction is not permissible.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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