Is it obligatory for someone who took food but did not consume it, and instead gave it away as charity, to pay for its price? If so, is it permissible for him to give a approximate amount as charity instead of paying the restaurant, to avoid embarrassment?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
You must pay the owner the value of the food, and it is not sufficient to give charity on his behalf. If you fear scandal, you can deliver the amount indirectly, for example, by sending it through a friend of the rights-holder, explaining the matter to him so he can deliver it. Look for an appropriate way to accurately estimate the value of the food and deliver the right to its owner.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/152909
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 152909
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy