How is the inheritance of the house distributed, is it based on its value at the time of the father's death or its current value, and do the two wives who passed away before the father have a share in the inheritance, and what is the explanation of the hadith "there is no bequest for an heir"?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The deceased wife who passes away before her husband has no share in the inheritance, by consensus. The statement "No bequest for an heir" means that a person cannot bequeath his money or a part of it to one of his heirs.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 93312
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