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The question

Does an oath take effect if a man says to his wife: "If you have done such-and-such and did not tell me, you are unlawful to me for the rest of your life," with the intention of threatening, not divorcing, knowing that she did indeed do that? And how can expiation be made for this statement?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Prohibiting one's wife depends on the husband's intention. If he intended divorce, it is a divorce. If he intended ẓihār, it is ẓihār. If he intended an oath, or did not intend anything, then an expiation for an oath (kaffārat yamīn) is required.

If the prohibition of the wife was conditioned on something that has already occurred, and the husband intended to threaten or intimidate without intending divorce or ẓihār, then an expiation for an oath is required of him.

The phrase "forbidden for life" is an emphasis on the prohibition and does not entail a separate ruling beyond the expiation for an oath.

It must be noted that an angry person is not held accountable for what he utters if he is unaware of what he is saying.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
122010
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy