Is writing a divorce (talaq) considered a binding divorce, and what are the jurists' opinions on that? Is it linguistically valid to consider writing as a divorce without uttering it?

Ibn Hazm holds that divorce does not occur through writing, whether the husband intended it or not, whereas the majority of jurists believe it occurs if the writing is clear and addressed to the wife. Jurists differed regarding the condition of intention for divorce to occur through writing; some held that it occurs without intention, while others stipulated intention. In summary, the majority of jurists believe that divorce occurs through writing if intention is present.