Does divorce take effect merely by verbally pronouncing it in writing as a question, with the intention of it taking effect should the wife insist?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
What transpired between the spouses in terms of communication, whether written or verbal, does not result in divorce. And the mere fact that the husband intended to respond to his wife's request for divorce if she sent her papers does not constitute a divorce, nor is the husband bound by anything as a result. Spouses are advised to resolve disputes with wisdom and understanding, and not to make divorce the first means of resolving a disagreement. Divorce is disliked in Islamic law and should not be resorted to except after all efforts at reconciliation have failed.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/167185
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 167185
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy