Is a divorce effective if the wife says to her husband, "My Lord will take me from you," or "One day He will take me from you by قدر (divine decree)," in a state of extreme anger, after the husband had sworn that she would be unlawful to him if she invoked a curse upon herself again?
The wording you mentioned could signify divorce, ẓihār (a pre-Islamic form of divorce by which a husband would liken his wife to an unmarriageable female relative, making sexual relations unlawful), or an oath, and it depends on the husband's intention and aim. If he intended ẓihār, then the act you swore upon has occurred, and it is not permissible for him to have intercourse with you before performing the expiation for ẓihār mentioned in Surat Al-Mujadilah. If he intended divorce, then an irrevocable divorce has occurred, with no possibility of reconciliation except through a new marriage contract, provided this was before consummation or valid seclusion. If he did not intend anything specific, then he must perform the expiation for an oath.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/155604
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 155604
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy