Is the wife sinful if she refuses to sell a property she co-owns with her husband, knowing that the husband is the one who paid for the property and is asking to sell it to furnish another house, and she has fears of his treachery after he divorced her twice previously?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The husband does not have the right to force his wife to sell her share in the jointly owned property, and there is no sin upon her if she refuses, unless there is a benefit in the sale, in which case she should not refuse.
If the husband requests the division of the house, and division would cause harm or require compensation, then in this case, the sale must be agreed upon to enable the one requesting the sale to obtain his share. The one refusing the sale will be compelled to sell if they refuse, because it is a means of escaping the harm of co-ownership.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/187306
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 187306
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy