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The question

Is it permissible for the wife to refuse her husband due to his not living in the marital home, if the husband only asks her to go to the house for the purpose of intimacy, bearing in mind that they live with his mother and the wife is harmed by this, especially since she has a child?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A wife has the right to an independent dwelling, unless she waives that right. If the husband refuses to provide it, the wife has the right to refuse intimacy until she obtains her right, because the husband's right to intimacy is conditioned upon his fulfilling his wife's rights, including maintenance and housing.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
196130
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy