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Does a divorce written by the father and signed by the husband, which the husband then denied, and which was subsequently confirmed by agreement between the spouses through word and deed, take effect?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

A husband's signature on a divorce paper, without uttering or writing the word of divorce, is not considered a divorce, because it is merely a signature on something created by another. However, if the husband subsequently utters the word "I divorce you," then the divorce has occurred, and his intention is not taken into account because it is an explicit pronouncement. If the divorce occurs before consummation or valid seclusion, it is an irrevocable divorce. In such disputed matters, one must refer to the Shariah judge.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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