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The question

Does a divorce written by the father and signed by the husband, which the husband then denied, and which was subsequently confirmed by agreement between the spouses through word and deed, take effect?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A husband's signature on a divorce paper, without uttering or writing the word of divorce, is not considered a divorce, because it is merely a signature on something created by another. However, if the husband subsequently utters the word "I divorce you," then the divorce has occurred, and his intention is not taken into account because it is an explicit pronouncement. If the divorce occurs before consummation or valid seclusion, it is an irrevocable divorce. In such disputed matters, one must refer to the Shariah judge.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
133258
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy