Does a divorce written by the father and signed by the husband, which the husband then denied, and which was subsequently confirmed by agreement between the spouses through word and deed, take effect?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A husband's signature on a divorce paper, without uttering or writing the word of divorce, is not considered a divorce, because it is merely a signature on something created by another. However, if the husband subsequently utters the word "I divorce you," then the divorce has occurred, and his intention is not taken into account because it is an explicit pronouncement. If the divorce occurs before consummation or valid seclusion, it is an irrevocable divorce. In such disputed matters, one must refer to the Shariah judge.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/133258
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 133258
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy