What is the legal ruling regarding a man who wrote a divorce paper for his wife himself, stating: "I, so-and-so, have divorced so-and-so, daughter of so-and-so, with three repudiations," and signed it, then claimed that he did not intend divorce, and is still married to her and has children with her?

Divorce takes effect by writing if it is explicit and with the intention of divorce, because writing is equivalent to verbal utterance. As for signing a divorce paper written by someone other than the husband, it refers back to the husband's intention at the time of signing; if he intended divorce, it takes effect, otherwise not, because signing is not explicit in divorce. Some scholars may hold the view that signing alone does not effect a divorce at all.