What is the reason for not answering question number 229271 and redirecting me to question number 26129 despite their differences?

If a husband divorces his wife and her waiting period (iddah) concludes, and then another man marries her, his marriage to her is valid because its conditions are met and there are no impediments. The fact that the divorce was not legally formalized until two years later does not affect its validity, because a divorce becomes binding the moment the husband utters it or assents to it, such as by saying "yes" in response to the question, "Did you divorce your wife?"