What was the basis upon which Ibn Jarir relied in his interpretation of verse (102) from Surat Al-Baqarah: "And they followed what the devils recited over the reign of Solomon. And Solomon did not disbelieve, but the devils disbelieved, teaching people magic and that which was revealed to the two angels in Babylon, Harut and Marut," and why would its interpretation not be: "And they followed what the devils recited over the reign of Solomon. And Solomon did not disbelieve, but the devils disbelieved, teaching people the magic that was revealed to the two angels in Babylon, Harut and Marut"? Is there anything that proves Ibn Jarir's interpretation, and if his interpretation is correct, what is the wisdom behind its not being revealed in this order in the Holy Qur'an? Are such questions forbidden or disliked?

Ibn Jarir al-Tabari, may Allah have mercy on him, based his interpretation of the verse on narrations and the Arabic language. He interpreted the verse to mean that the devils were the ones who taught people magic in Babylon, and that Harut and Marut were two men who taught people magic. He exonerated Solomon, peace be upon him, and the two angels Gabriel and Michael from the accusation of magic, stating that the Jews claimed that Allah sent down magic upon Gabriel and Michael, and Allah Almighty refuted their claim. He indicated that "ma" (ما) in His saying, {And what was sent down upon the two angels} (Quran 2:102), is a relative pronoun meaning "that which," and that magic was sent down upon the two angels in Babylon as a test. He clarified that the revelation of the verse in this manner is an Arabic stylistic device that relies on fronting and delaying, and that asking about it is permissible as long as the intention is to understand and reflect upon the Book of Allah.