Did a divorce take place in the two cases mentioned, taking into consideration ignorance of the teachings of Islam?

If a husband utters an explicit divorce, it takes effect, whether he intended to enact it or merely to intimidate, and he is not excused by his ignorance of its consequences. However, if the divorce was written with the intention of intimidation, without being uttered, it does not take effect. If the husband was extremely angry to the extent that he would not have divorced were it not for his anger, the preponderant view is that the divorce does not take effect. Cohabiting with the wife after a divorce is considered a raj'ah (revocation) according to the Hanbalis.