Did a divorce take place in the two cases mentioned, taking into consideration ignorance of the teachings of Islam?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If a husband utters an explicit divorce, it takes effect, whether he intended to enact it or merely to intimidate, and he is not excused by his ignorance of its consequences. However, if the divorce was written with the intention of intimidation, without being uttered, it does not take effect. If the husband was extremely angry to the extent that he would not have divorced were it not for his anger, the preponderant view is that the divorce does not take effect. Cohabiting with the wife after a divorce is considered a raj'ah (revocation) according to the Hanbalis.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 7846
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- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
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- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy