Is a wife's use of a sexually explicit word instead of the word "Islam" during a quarrel considered an act of disbelief (kufr), and does it lead to the annulment of the marriage contract, knowing that she did not intend to mock Islam but was in a state of anger and emotional distress?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
So long as the wife did not intend to belittle the religion or mock Islam, but rather the word came out of her due to her bad habit of uttering obscene language, then she does not become an unbeliever thereby. However, she incurs sin for uttering foul language, as the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "Indeed, Allah does not love obscenity or the obscene." And he said: "Indeed, Allah detests the obscene, foul-mouthed person." And he said: "The believer is not a slanderer, nor a curser, nor obscene, nor foul-mouthed." It should also be noted that the questioner suffers from severe obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 165290
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