If a man swears an conditional oath of divorce upon his wife, and the condition is met, and he pays an expiation for the oath, does that count as a divorce upon the wife?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the husband, who is capable of examining the evidence, or has been given a by trustworthy scholars, concludes that the one who took an oath is obliged to pay expiation without the occurrence of divorce, then there is no blame upon him. When there is a dispute regarding matters of divorce, it is best to refer to the court, as a judge's ruling resolves disagreements.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/109493
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 109493
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy