Does a divorce utterance, spoken by the husband while angry, and with the imagination that he divorced his wife in his house in the presence of her mother, take effect, knowing that he was aware of what he was saying and did not intend divorce, thinking that divorce does not occur except in the presence of the wife? And is the wife's sexual intercourse after this utterance, without intention during the waiting period, considered a valid return, knowing that the husband is clinging to his wife and did not intend to divorce her? And what is the ruling on adopting a fatwa in this matter?
If the intention of divorce was not present when you uttered the words in the absence of your wife, then some scholars have held that divorce does not occur thereby. And if divorce did occur and it was not a completion of the three divorces, then you may reconcile with your wife during her 'iddah by word or by intercourse.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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