Is a pronouncement of divorce that occurs after a minor, revocable divorce considered [effective], such as when a man pronounces a third divorce upon his divorced wife one year after her first divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a man divorces his wife with a minor irrevocable divorce (talaq bain baynunah sughra), whether it is by the expiration of her waiting period (iddah) from a revocable divorce or because she has no waiting period, then his divorce does not fall upon her thereafter. This is because she is no longer his wife, and divorce only falls upon one's wife.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 108958
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
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