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The question

Is the banking transaction permissible by Sharia in which the bank directly purchases shares in the client's name and places them in the client's portfolio, while taking a pledge from the client not to dispose of them until the Murabaha contract is completed and the restriction is lifted, and then the bank sells them to the client, knowing that the bank takes a power of attorney to dispose of the shares if the client defaults? And does the bank, by doing so, truly own and possess the shares, or is it a deception? And is it permissible for the bank to purchase shares in its own name and portfolio and then authorize the client to sell them?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the shares are permissible and the bank owns them and they entered into its possession and guarantee before selling them to you, then there is no harm in the transaction, and the perfunctory procedures do not affect it. The consideration in contracts is their meanings. It is permissible to appoint the client as an agent for purchasing when there is an urgent need, provided that the institution directly pays the price to the seller and obtains documents to confirm the sale.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
156127
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy