Is a man who can only achieve arousal through his wife's mouth considered to be in a state of necessity, and is his wife considered compelled to accept this to avoid divorce or a difficult life, especially if the husband is bound from his wife by magic?
It is permissible for spouses to engage in oral pleasure and similar acts, so there is no harm if the wife responds to her husband for oral pleasure or any other permissible form of enjoyment. However, she is not obligated to obey him in matters that are unconventional or harmful to her. If the husband is unable to engage in intercourse, he should seek treatment. If the wife is harmed by this situation, she has the right to request a divorce or khul'.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/137491