Does divorce take place if a man tells his wife about a phrase he uttered previously—a phrase that was an allusion to divorce—informing her that he feared divorce might have occurred because of it, and that he had sought the opinion of scholars regarding it? And what is the difference between an instituting utterance and an informative utterance regarding divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
What the husband tells his wife about the words of divorce and the fear of its occurrence does not result in divorce, due to the lack of intent and the act of creation. Informing about divorce is different from creating it or bringing it into existence.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/179189
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 179189
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy