Does divorce take place if a man tells his wife about a phrase he uttered previously—a phrase that was an allusion to divorce—informing her that he feared divorce might have occurred because of it, and that he had sought the opinion of scholars regarding it? And what is the difference between an instituting utterance and an informative utterance regarding divorce?
What the husband tells his wife about the words of divorce and the fear of its occurrence does not result in divorce, due to the lack of intent and the act of creation. Informing about divorce is different from creating it or bringing it into existence.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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