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The question

Is expiation required of one who swore not to commit a sin but then committed it, knowing that expiation for breaking an oath becomes due after the act?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If someone swears not to do something and then does it, they must offer expiation for breaking an oath, as Allah Almighty says: "So its expiation is the feeding of ten poor people from the average of that which you feed your [own] families or clothing them or freeing a slave. But he who finds not [the means to do so] - then a fast of three days." For feeding, it is sufficient to give each poor person one and a half kilograms of rice or flour, or a lunch or dinner meal. Ignorance of the necessity of expiation is not an excuse for its annulment.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
15750
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy