What must a husband do after swearing an oath of divorce upon his wife that she not attend any wedding of anyone bearing a specific family name, and then it becomes clear to him that the reason for his oath (the reckless youth) are not from that family?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The one who swore an oath of divorce upon his wife that she should not attend a wedding of anyone from a specific family, and the reason for his oath was his belief that those who annoyed him belonged to that family: if that is the case, then he does not break his oath if the wife attends the wedding and it becomes clear that those who annoyed him do not belong to that family. This is because the reason that prompted the oath restricts and specializes the oath.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/104871
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 104871
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy