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What is the ruling on a husband prohibiting his children and wife to himself if a son goes anywhere other than school, and does this prohibition take effect even though the husband uttered it in a state of extreme anger, then insisted upon it, and how can the husband retract this oath, and does this entail the prohibition of his wife to him?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Swearing by other than Allah is not permissible, and swearing by divorce or by declaring one's wife unlawful is even more strictly forbidden. It is among the oaths of the wicked, and one must repent and seek forgiveness for it. Declaring one's children unlawful is null and void. As for declaring one's wife unlawful, there are several scholarly opinions: 1. Conditional divorce: Divorce takes effect when the condition on which the oath was based occurs. 2. Zihar: It necessitates the expiation for zihar. 3. Oath: It necessitates the expiation for an oath, and it is permissible to break it. 4. It depends on intention and purpose: If the intention was to suspend divorce, then it is a conditional divorce. If the intention was an oath, then it is an oath. This last opinion is the one applied in many Sharia courts.

The questioner is advised to present his case to the Sharia courts.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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