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The question

When is zakat due on one who intended trade goods for acquisition, then for trade? And how is zakat paid on debts and usurped money, and on a woman's dowry received years later?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

First: Whoever bought goods for trade and then intended them for personal use is not obligated to pay on them. If he later intends them for trade, the majority of scholars hold that he does not pay zakat on them until after they are sold and a year has passed on their price. However, a group of scholars holds that zakat becomes obligatory as soon as the intention for trade is made, and this opinion is more cautious.

Second: Zakat on debts has two situations: a- If the debt is owed by a solvent person, its owner pays zakat on it for every year, and it is preferable to pay zakat on it annually at its due time. b- If the debt is owed by an insolvent or procrastinating person, it is more cautious to pay zakat on it upon receipt for all past years, or for one year.

Third: When a woman receives her dowry (mahr), she pays zakat on it for the past years, because it is considered akin to a debt.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
30540
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy