Is the female questioner required to offer expiation (kaffarah) after her initial refusal of intercourse, followed by her conviction by her husband's words that expiation had become obligatory upon him, and thus he had to complete it? And what is incumbent upon the husband due to his ignorance of the difference between the rulings of ejaculation and intercourse?
The spouses must perform sincere repentance for their foreplay that led to ejaculation during a Ramadan day and to intercourse. Expiation is obligatory for the husband due to intercourse during a Ramadan day, and he must make up for that day. As for the wife, she must make up for the day, and it is more prudent for her to perform expiation.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/151230