Did the divorce actually occur after the wife resorted to the court and a judicial ruling for divorce was issued, then revoked? And does the husband's feeling of divorce during that period make it occur?

Your divorce from your wife has not occurred as long as you have not pronounced it explicitly or implicitly with the intention; for divorce does not take place by mere intention, and the 'iddah (waiting period) for an absentia divorce issued by the court does not begin until the judgment becomes final.