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Does the wording in Sharia always carry its literal meaning, even if that meaning was not intended, especially when there is an intention to joke and the listener is aware of it? And does this case fall under His, the Almighty's, saying: "He utters no word except that with him is an observer, ready [to record]", or the Hadith: "Deeds are only by intentions"?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The default is to interpret speech literally, and it is not permissible to divert it to a metaphorical meaning unless there is an indication. The word "impudence" is a denouncement and means a lack of modesty and daring to commit vile acts. Lexicographers have not mentioned any other meaning for it. Therefore, attributing it to a person is considered cursing and reviling, which is not approved by Islamic law. This is indicated by the saying of the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him: "The believer is not a slanderer, nor a curser, nor an obscene speaker, nor an evil speaker." A Muslim should accustom their tongue to speak good and avoid every word that might carry ill meaning.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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