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Was the Prophet obligated to divide his time among his wives, and why did he seek permission after the revelation of the verse: "You may defer [the turn of] whom you will among them" despite his awareness of his heart's inclination? Is the verse: "No [other] women are lawful to you hereafter" abrogated, and did the Prophet marry for beauty? And what is the extent of the authenticity of his marriage to Umaymah without her consent or the consent of her guardian?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The permission granted to the Prophet -peace be upon him- to forgo the equal division of time among his wives, its wisdom lies in mercy towards him and in making things easy for him. This is similar to his exclusivity in having more than four wives. Scholars have indicated that this was part of his human and royal perfection, and it held a great religious wisdom, such as the dissemination of Islamic rulings. His seeking permission from his wives was to gladden their hearts, and their competition was in matters of the Hereafter and closeness to him. A believer should not expose himself to the شبهات (doubts/misconceptions) of enemies; rather, he must submit to the command of Allah and seek Islamic knowledge.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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