Is a girl forbidden to a man if he swears, "If you do such and such, you are forbidden to me until the Day of Judgment," and it becomes clear that she did only a small part of what he swore upon?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Prohibiting a non- woman is null and void, and nothing results from it, unless one intends ẓihār by it, in which case it becomes binding according to some scholars. Then, the expiation for ẓihār becomes obligatory before touching her if you marry her. Performing the expiation is more cautious. What matters in knowing whether an oath is broken is the intended meaning of the statement. A Muslim should choose a righteous wife and avoid words of prohibition and divorce.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/171375
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 171375
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy