Back to search
The question

Is a girl forbidden to a man if he swears, "If you do such and such, you are forbidden to me until the Day of Judgment," and it becomes clear that she did only a small part of what he swore upon?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Prohibiting a non- woman is null and void, and nothing results from it, unless one intends ẓihār by it, in which case it becomes binding according to some scholars. Then, the expiation for ẓihār becomes obligatory before touching her if you marry her. Performing the expiation is more cautious. What matters in knowing whether an oath is broken is the intended meaning of the statement. A Muslim should choose a righteous wife and avoid words of prohibition and divorce.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
171375
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy