Does a wife become forbidden to her husband if he says to her, "You are forbidden to me," in the event of her lying or doing a specific thing, and does she indeed become so if what he conditioned it upon occurs?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The ruling on this oath varies depending on the intention of the one who swears it:
- If he intended divorce, then it is a divorce that takes effect if the wife lies or does what the prohibition was conditioned upon.
- If he intended ẓihār, then ẓihār occurs, and it is not permissible for him to have intercourse with her until he performs the expiation for ẓihār.
- If he intended an oath, or did not intend anything specific, then it is an oath whose expiation is feeding ten poor people or clothing them, or fasting three days if he cannot find (the means).
It is advisable to present the issue to trustworthy scholars.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/162337
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 162337
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy