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Does a wife become forbidden to her husband if he says to her, "You are forbidden to me," in the event of her lying or doing a specific thing, and does she indeed become so if what he conditioned it upon occurs?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The ruling on this oath varies depending on the intention of the one who swears it:

- If he intended divorce, then it is a divorce that takes effect if the wife lies or does what the prohibition was conditioned upon.

- If he intended ẓihār, then ẓihār occurs, and it is not permissible for him to have intercourse with her until he performs the expiation for ẓihār.

- If he intended an oath, or did not intend anything specific, then it is an oath whose expiation is feeding ten poor people or clothing them, or fasting three days if he cannot find (the means).

It is advisable to present the issue to trustworthy scholars.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

Read the full answer on Ftawy