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The question

What is the ruling on one who broke his oath and vow by committing masturbation, and does the ruling differ based on the type of masturbation (by pressing with the thighs, or by thinking, or by slight friction), and is he required to make up for it if he is unsure about the type of discharge (madhy or semen) while being unable to fast or offer expiation?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The sin of masturbation includes all acts leading to the emission of semen. The intention of the swearer is considered to specify the general wording of the oath. So, if the swearer intended a specific type of forbidden act, his intention is valid, based on the saying of the Prophet (peace be upon him): "Indeed, actions are by intentions, and every person will have what he intended."

This type of vow is considered an "oath of stubbornness" (nathr al-lajaj), in which one is given the choice between fulfilling it or offering expiation (expiation for an oath).

One acts based on the predominant assumption when it is difficult or impossible to act with certainty.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
165325
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy