Does the wife become forbidden to her husband and engaging in sexual intercourse with her considered adultery if the husband, in a moment of anger, tells her, "You are forbidden to me," and then has intercourse with her on the same day, or is he only required to offer expiation?

A man's statement to his wife, "You are unlawful to me," can be understood in three ways, depending on his intention:

1. Intending Zihar: It is considered zihar (injurious assimilation), and the expiation for zihar becomes obligatory. This expiation is: freeing a slave, and if he cannot find one, then fasting for two consecutive months before intercourse. If he is unable to do that, then feeding sixty poor people. Intercourse with his wife before expiation is a misdeed but is not considered zina (fornication/adultery).

2. Intending Divorce: Divorce occurs. If it is the first or second divorce, it is revocable, and intercourse thereafter is considered a reconciliation. However, if it is the third divorce, she becomes irrevocably unlawful to him (major baynunah), and intercourse with her at that point is considered zina, unless she marries another man, consummates the marriage with him, and then he divorces her.

3. Not Intending Anything Specific: It is considered an oath (yamin), and its expiation becomes obligatory. This expiation is: feeding ten poor people or clothing them. If he cannot find them, then fasting for three days. There is no consequence for intercourse with his wife in this case.

The husband should avoid using such words during disagreements and steer clear of causes of anger.