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The question

Do these two verses imply pantheism?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The two verses do not refer to wahdat al-wujud (unity of existence). The first verse affirms tawhid (monotheism), and the second verse affirms the annihilation of witnessing anything other than Allah, which is different from the annihilation espoused by those who believe in wahdat al-wujud. Annihilation (fana') is divided into three meanings: annihilation from the existence of others (which is the annihilation of atheists and wahdat al-wujud), annihilation from witnessing others (which is the annihilation of most later Sufis), and annihilation from desiring others (which is the highest and most complete, meaning annihilation from worshipping, loving, hoping in, and relying on anyone other than Allah).

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
107125
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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