Do the procedures that took place between the spouses count as a divorce, knowing that the husband did not utter the divorce and had no intention of saying it, and he divorced her in the divorce document with a revocable divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If you authorized your friend to finalize the divorce proceedings, then the divorce is apparently effective, even if you did not utter the words yourself. The Egyptian Dar al-Ifta has issued a stating that divorce takes effect merely by the husband's order to write the divorce deed, and that if the ma'dhun (authorized officiant) writes the document based on this order, it is considered a divorce by consensus. Since the divorce is revocable, the wife can be taken back before the expiry of her (waiting period).
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/131620
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 131620
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy