Does a man who participated in the purchase of a building deserve a profit from his capital, even though the building has not yet been sold, knowing that its price has increased?
If a man participates in a share of real estate and a known portion is agreed upon for him (such as one-third or one-fourth) in exchange for the money paid, then the contract is valid, and he is a partner in the share, entitled to the value of the property in proportion to his share. However, if the extent of his share is not specified, then the sale is invalid, and the partnership is فاسدة (corrupt/defective), and he is only entitled to what he paid. To rectify the contract, his portion in the share must be specified. It is a condition of sale that the object of sale be known to prevent dispute. If the contract is valid, there is no harm for the partner in selling his share for any price.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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