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The question

What is the ruling on one who swore to his wife by that which is unlawful (haram) that she not speak to or see her friend, and is anything binding upon him?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the husband says to his wife: "You are unlawful to me if you speak to so-and-so woman," there are three scenarios:

- If he intended divorce: It is a contingent divorce that takes effect if the wife speaks to that woman.

- If he intended zihar: It is a contingent zihar.

- If he intended an oath or did not intend anything: He must pay an expiation for breaking an oath (kaffarat ) if the wife speaks to that woman.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
176398
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy